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The Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management mock tests are specially built for you to evaluate what you have studied. These ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management (ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management) practice exams (desktop and web-based) are customizable, which means that you can change the time and questions according to your needs. Our ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management (ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management) practice tests teach you time management so you can pass the ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management (ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management) certification exam.

Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

Information and technology: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and explores how technology and information systems support deployment activities. It covers how tools and digital platforms can enhance the planning, tracking, and execution of deployment efforts, ultimately contributing to more reliable and streamlined service rollouts.

Topic 2

Practice success: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Change Implementation Lead and explains how to achieve success with Deployment Management through the application of ITIL guiding principles. It focuses on strategies that help establish a robust and value-driven deployment approach that aligns with business objectives and delivers measurable outcomes.

Topic 3

Partners and suppliers: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Change Implementation Lead and examines the influence of partners and suppliers in the deployment process. It highlights the importance of effective collaboration and communication with external stakeholders to ensure that deployments are delivered according to expectations and with minimal risks.

Topic 4

Roles and competencies: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Change Implementation Lead and focuses on identifying essential roles within Deployment Management and the competencies needed to perform them effectively. It explores how to position deployment responsibilities within an organization and what skill sets are necessary to ensure deployment tasks are carried out successfully.

Topic 5

Practice success factors: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Change Implementation Lead and focuses on understanding practice success factors and the core metrics used to evaluate deployment effectiveness. It emphasizes the importance of tracking efficiency and success in service deployment and how these metrics help improve the overall stability and agility of the service transition process.

Topic 6

The ITIL Capability model: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and introduces how capability criteria contribute to developing and maturing Deployment Management practices. It focuses on aligning organizational capabilities with ITIL best practices to maintain consistency, quality, and effectiveness in service transitions.

Topic 7

Key concepts: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and covers the fundamental purpose of Deployment Management. It highlights why the structured management of service deployment is crucial for delivering new or modified services into the live environment efficiently while minimizing disruption and ensuring continuity in business operations.

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Updated Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Exam Questions - Fast Track To Get Success

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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Sample Questions (Q12-Q17):

NEW QUESTION # 12
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
An IT service provider is using continuous integration and is considering the introduction of continuous delivery. Which is a benefit of this proposed change for the service provider?

A. Users experience changes which are smaller and more frequent
B. Code is tested iteratively and frequently
C. Developers spend less time fixing issues in their code
D. Deployments of software builds are scripted to allow for automation

Answer: A

Explanation:
Continuous delivery (CD) in ITIL 4 extends continuous integration (CI) by ensuring that every validated change is ready for deployment to production, enabling smaller and more frequent releases. The key benefit for users is that they experience changes which are smaller and more frequent (Option D), reducing risk, improving feedback cycles, and delivering value faster.
Option A (Developers spend less time fixing issues in their code): Incorrect, as while CD may reduce some issues through automation, this is not its primary benefit, and CI already includes frequent testing to catch issues early.
Option B (Code is tested iteratively and frequently): Incorrect, as iterative and frequent testing is a feature of continuous integration, not a new benefit introduced by continuous delivery.
Option C (Deployments of software builds are scripted to allow for automation): Incorrect, as scripting and automation are part of both CI and CD pipelines, not a unique benefit of introducing CD.
Option D (Users experience changes which are smaller and more frequent): Correct, as CD enables rapid, incremental releases to production, directly benefiting users with faster and less disruptive updates.

NEW QUESTION # 13
[Understand Roles and Responsibilities]
A fast-growing service provider is introducing separate roles of deployment manager and deployment practitioner. Which TWO activities is a deployment manager responsible for?
Ensuring that deployment records are up-to-date and correct
Prioritizing multiple deployments that require use of the same resources Ensuring deployment plans support other service management plans Capturing and verifying users' opinions on deployments

A. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation:
In ITIL 4, the deployment manager role focuses on strategic and coordinating activities, such as overseeing resource allocation and aligning deployment plans with broader service management objectives. The correct activities are:
Activity 2 (Prioritizing multiple deployments that require use of the same resources): A deployment manager ensures efficient resource use by prioritizing conflicting deployments, a key managerial responsibility.
Activity 3 (Ensuring deployment plans support other service management plans): The deployment manager aligns deployment activities with other practices (e.g., change enablement, release management) to ensure coherence across service management, another strategic task.
Activity 1 (Ensuring that deployment records are up-to-date and correct): This is typically a task for a deployment practitioner, who handles operational details like record-keeping, not a manager's core responsibility.
Activity 4 (Capturing and verifying users' opinions on deployments): This aligns more with practices like relationship management or service desk activities, not the deployment manager's role, which focuses on planning and execution rather than user feedback collection.

NEW QUESTION # 14
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which is a key feature of continuous deployment which is not found in other CI/CD stages?

A. It allows individual decisions about software releases
B. It predominantly uses staging environments
C. It enables users to benefit immediately from changes
D. It automatically tests software code

Answer: C

Explanation:
Continuous deployment (CD) in ITIL 4 is the most advanced stage of the CI/CD pipeline, where every validated change is automatically deployed to production without manual intervention. The key feature unique to continuous deployment, not found in continuous integration or continuous delivery, is that it enables users to benefit immediately from changes (Option B), as changes reach production instantly after passing automated tests.
Option A (It automatically tests software code): Incorrect, as automated testing is a feature of continuous integration and continuous delivery, not unique to continuous deployment.
Option B (It enables users to benefit immediately from changes): Correct, as continuous deployment automatically pushes validated changes to production, delivering value to users without delay, unlike other CI/CD stages.
Option C (It predominantly uses staging environments): Incorrect, as continuous deployment minimizes reliance on staging environments, deploying directly to production.
Option D (It allows individual decisions about software releases): Incorrect, as continuous deployment eliminates manual release decisions, relying on automation for consistency.

NEW QUESTION # 15
[Use Tools and Techniques for Deployment]
Which automation tools should be used to transport and install configuration items into a test environment?

A. Work planning and prioritization tools
B. Service configuration management tools
C. Environment configuration and management tools
D. Deployment tools

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 16
[Measure and Improve Deployment Management]
An IT service manager is analyzing a value stream that is used to deploy new and changed services. The manager has interviewed many staff and has identified all the workflow steps. The manager is now evaluating the workflow steps so that they can plan improvements. Which activity should the manager carry out as part of this evaluation?

A. Collect data about what happens in each workflow step
B. Establish what value is created in each workflow step
C. Define an ideal series of workflow steps for the future
D. Identify wasteful steps that could be eliminated

Answer: B

Explanation:
ITIL 4's value stream analysis focuses on understanding the contribution of each step to overall value delivery to identify improvement opportunities. When evaluating workflow steps, the manager should establish what value is created in each step (Option D), as this provides the foundation for assessing whether steps are necessary, effective, or aligned with organizational goals.
Option A (Collect data about what happens in each workflow step): Incorrect, as data collection is part of identifying steps (already done, per the question), not evaluating their value.
Option B (Identify wasteful steps that could be eliminated): Incorrect, as identifying waste is a subsequent action that depends on first understanding the value of each step.
Option C (Define an ideal series of workflow steps for the future): Incorrect, as defining future steps is part of planning improvements, not evaluating current steps.
Option D (Establish what value is created in each workflow step): Correct, as evaluating value per step is critical to understanding the stream's effectiveness and prioritizing improvements, per ITIL 4.

NEW QUESTION # 17
......

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